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NEW QUESTION # 40
What are the objectives of conducting an internal loss investigation?
Answer: D
Explanation:
tep 1: Purpose of Internal Loss Investigations
Internal loss investigations analyze past loss events to identify root causes, improve controls, and enhance risk assessments.
Step 2: Why Option A Is Correct
Root Cause Analysis: Identifying why the loss occurred.
Focus on Remediation: Implementing corrective measures to prevent recurrence.
Scenario Analysis Improvement: Using lessons learned to enhance risk scenario modeling.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option B ("Focus on who caused the issue") → Incorrect because loss investigations are about systemic issues, not assigning blame.
Option C ("Ascertain responsibility for the loss event") → Incorrect because the focus is on process improvements, not individual accountability.
Option D ("Determined by HR on a case-by-case basis") → Incorrect because HR does not dictate risk investigations-risk and compliance functions do.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Operational Risk Framework - Emphasizes loss investigations for systemic risk management.
Basel III Risk Governance Standards - Defines loss event analysis as a key risk management tool.
NEW QUESTION # 41
Two of the four key resources that are regarded as critical to maintain confidence and calibrate Risk Appetite to are?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Key Resources for Calibrating Risk Appetite
Risk appetite defines how much risk an organization is willing to accept to achieve its objectives.
Two of the most critical resources for maintaining confidence and setting risk appetite are net earnings and capital.
Why Net Earnings and Capital are Critical
Net earnings reflect profitability and financial stability, influencing risk-taking capacity.
Capital ensures that the institution can absorb losses and meet regulatory requirements.
Basel III emphasizes capital adequacy as a core measure of financial resilience.
Why Answer B is Correct
Net earnings support operational stability, while capital determines how much risk an institution can bear.
Both are used to define and calibrate risk appetite levels.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Capital expenditure and liquidity.
Incorrect - Capital expenditure is an investment measure, not a direct risk appetite determinant.
C . Strong regulatory assessment and net earnings.
Incorrect - Regulatory assessments are important but do not directly set risk appetite.
D . Quality human resources and reputation.
Incorrect - HR and reputation are important for governance but do not directly influence risk capital and earnings stability.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Risk Appetite Framework
Basel III Capital and Earnings Management Guidelines
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following principles best applies to a compliance function?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Step 1: Compliance Function and the Three Lines of Defense Model
The Three Lines of Defense (3LoD) model ensures that risk management responsibilities are properly segregated:
First Line: Business units (own and manage risk).
Second Line: Compliance and risk management (independent oversight).
Third Line: Internal audit (provides assurance).
Step 2: Why Compliance Must Be Independent
PRMIA and Basel Compliance Principles state that compliance should not report to business units, as this creates a conflict of interest.
Compliance must be independent to ensure objective oversight of regulatory adherence.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Report to the business") → Incorrect because compliance must provide independent oversight, not report to business units.
Option C ("Outsource compliance if risk function exists") → Incorrect because compliance and risk functions have distinct roles.
Option D ("Outsource risk if compliance exists") → Incorrect because risk management is a core function, not an outsourcing candidate.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Compliance Risk Governance - States compliance must be independent under the Three Lines of Defense model.
Basel Compliance Principles - Recommends separate reporting structures for compliance and business units.
Final Conclusion:
Compliance must be independent from the business to avoid conflicts of interest, making Option B the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 43
Risk Sensitive pricing is required for several good reasons. Which one of the following is not relevant to the Management's evaluation of the correct approach to Risk Sensitive pricing?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Risk-sensitive pricing ensures that financial institutions and businesses properly account for risk in their pricing strategies to maintain stability and sustainability. PRMIA's Risk Pricing and Capital Adequacy Guidelines define the importance of risk-sensitive pricing in ensuring fair compensation for risk exposure and avoiding risk concentration issues.
Step 1: Why Risk-Sensitive Pricing Is Important
Aligns risk with return: Pricing should be designed to reflect the underlying risk and return trade-off.
Protects investors: Investors expect compensation for capital at risk (Option A is correct).
Reinforces risk-aware culture: PRMIA promotes linking incentives to risk-adjusted returns (Option B is correct).
Prevents adverse selection: Proper risk pricing prevents low-quality assets from accumulating (Option C is correct).
Step 2: Why Option D Is Incorrect
Income targets are business-driven, not risk-driven.
Risk-sensitive pricing aims to balance risk and reward, not just maximize revenue.
PRMIA discourages profit-seeking behavior at the expense of risk considerations.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Risk Pricing Guidelines - Defines the principles of risk-sensitive pricing.
PRMIA Risk-Adjusted Return Standards - Stresses linking incentives to risk-aware decisions.
PRMIA Capital Adequacy Framework - Highlights the role of risk-sensitive pricing in portfolio management.
Final Conclusion:
Risk-sensitive pricing is designed to align returns with risk exposure, not simply to meet or exceed income targets, making Option D the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 44
For the FTX case study, what was the "backdoor" used for?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The FTX collapse involved fraudulent fund mismanagement, where FTX executives created a "backdoor" to allow Alameda Research (FTX's sister trading firm) to borrow client funds without their consent.
Step 1: The "Backdoor" in FTX
The backdoor was a hidden code in FTX's system, allegedly created by Sam Bankman-Fried, which allowed Alameda to access customer deposits without triggering alerts to auditors or compliance teams.
Alameda used these funds for risky trading strategies and investments, leading to the eventual collapse of FTX when a liquidity crunch exposed the missing funds.
Step 2: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("allowed a stablecoin to be removed from the ledger and added to the balance sheet") Incorrect because FTX's fraud involved misuse of customer funds, not just a stablecoin misclassification.
Option C ("allowed currency traders to smooth profits and conceal losses for over two years") Incorrect because this sounds more like LIBOR-rigging scandals, whereas FTX misappropriated client funds.
Option D ("allowed a rapid pace of acquisitions but poor integration of acquired companies") Incorrect because FTX's collapse was due to financial fraud, not poor acquisition strategy.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Financial Crime Risk Management - Discusses insider risk and fraudulent misappropriation of funds.
FTX Collapse Reports - SEC, CFTC, and DOJ filings confirm that Alameda had unauthorized access to client funds.
Final Conclusion:
FTX's backdoor enabled Alameda to take $65 billion in client funds without permission, making Option B the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 45
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